Read this article in The Times of India a few days ago, thought I’d share it with you guys:
“The Gujarat high court has upheld a lower court’s definition of adultery, where it said that a couple of lapses in behaviour, if they are unwitting, cannot be called adultery. However, a singular premeditated act of sexual intercourse by one spouse with another person would be adultery.”
“Had it been a one-night stand and if it arose out of an excusable situation, it would be a lapse.”
What I fail to understand is, how can there ever be an unintentional lapse of loyalty in a relationship (read marriage)? You’re either loyal or you’re not, right? How come adultery of any form is tolerated while love of a particular form (Section 377: Against Homosexuality) is prosecuted? How can one attempt to prove that this supposed “lapse” is unintentional?
What do you think of this?